I have a question. If you look at any of the romance languages, one thing that immediately springs out is the fact that objects have gender. So my question is this - Why does English lack the gender associated with objects the same way many romance languages do? From what I understand, German also uses the gender pronouns for what would otherwise be gender-less objects.
I have a question. If you look at any of the romance languages, one thing that immediately springs out is the fact that objects have gender. So my question is this - Why does English lack the gender associated with objects the same way many romance languages do? From what I understand, German also uses the gender pronouns for what would otherwise be gender-less objects.
ReplyDeleteIt must be because we are superior and therefore do not need, nor desire, such a false division of pronoun...
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